Hi!

I have just been made redundant and my problem is this:

I worked for 8 years within a company, the last 2 of these years were as an only employee, the director/owner split his working time between this company and another company in which he is a 1/3 shareholder.

Three years ago the the director/owner, came to a agreement where the other company purchased the company for which I worked. I was then relocated to this second company, where the director/owner now works fulltime.

During my first 2 years at the first company, the second company was part co-located within the same office, there was also a transfer of work agreement between both companies, where work within my trade would have to be placed with the first company for which I then worked.

I signed a new contract after insisting that the section, stating that "no employment with a previous employer counts towards your period of continuous employment" was removed. My current contract does state that "Your employment with the company commenced on 00.00.04". I have copies of both documents, the original and the revised, as well as another showing which sections the director was amending after my protest, this also mentions sections covering "Transfer of undertakings".

My question is: Does this consitute a "Continuation of Employment" and are the two companies by definition "Associated Companies"?



Regards

Kentishman