reduced hours instead of redundancy?

Hi there - new to the forum here with a problem (as I guess most folk have who join!).

I have worked fullt time for the same employer for about 9 years. things are not going to well in terms of sales etc and a couple of weeks ago I asked to reduce my week to 3 days rather than 5 (it suited what I wanted to do and I guessed it would help out the company cash flow). The pay would be pro-rata to my yearly salary.

Anyway my boss has told me that he wants to reduce my time to just 1 day a week. I have requested that he puts this in writing to me.

I think that this is a way of just about making me redundant without having to pay out. If I work just 1 day a week for my employer do I still have reduncy rights and will I still have 9 years of continuous service etc, etc.... Would redundancy pay be based on my yearly salary or pro-rata to the hours I would be working (ie not very many)??

Any advice greatly appreciated.
thanks in advance
Mick

Hi Mick

If you agree to this reduction then this becomes your new contract. If you are subsequently made redundant it will be on the basis of that contract and on the reduced pay.

Regards

Pete

Hi Pete

Thanks for the response.

Would that still be the case if the written confirmation from the employer said that it was temporary due to a downturn in business? - and my response was that on the understanding that it was temporary until things improved I agree?

Thanks again.

Mick